[Grammar] Which one is correct ?

[Sir Shakespeare]

Hullo!
Which one is correct ?
1- We had two weeks' holiday .
2- We had two week's holiday .
3- We had two a two weeks' holiday
4- We had two weeks holiday .
Thanks

​

 

[calypsovoice]

We had a two-week holiday.
We had two week's holiday.

I'm not a teacher, but it was on this forum before, so I'm sure it's correct.

 

[TheParser]

Hullo!
Which one is correct ?
1-We had two weeks' holiday .
2-We had two week's holiday .
3-We had two a two weeks' holiday
4-We had two weeks holiday .
Thanks​

********** NOT a teacher **********

Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

(1) I believe that two "correct" answers would be:

We had a two weeks' holiday. =

We had a holiday of two weeks.

(2) We had a two-week holiday. (no "weeks")

Similar to: We have a five-year-old daughter.

((no "years")

THANK YOU

 

[Sir Shakespeare]

Calypsovoice​

Well , thanks!
With regard to this : ​

We had two week's holiday.​

Methinks, It's still ambiguous because according to The parser , it should be like this : ​

We had a two weeks' holiday. ​

Yet , I am still confused! I've just skimmed my Oxford Learner's Pocket Grammar and I've found this example : ​

James has got three weeks' holiday . (( without a )) ​

The parser ​

Thanks for your minute explanation ​

We had a holiday of two weeks.​

Good way of expressing the same idea! ​

We had a two-week holiday. (no "weeks")​

Great! Thank you​

GREETINGS
​

 

[TheParser]

Calypsovoice​

Well , thanks!
With regard to this : ​

Methinks, It's still ambiguous because according to The parser , it should be like this : ​

Yet , I am still confused! I've just skimmed my Oxford Learner's Pocket Grammar and I've found this example : ​

James has got three weeks' holiday . (( without a )) ​

The parser ​

Thanks for your minute explanation ​

Good way of expressing the same idea! ​

Great! Thank you​

GREETINGS

​

********** NOT a teacher **********

Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

(1) You have asked an excellent question.

(2) I think that there is a difference between:

(a) We had a two weeks' vacation. (By the way, I think that

most native speakers are more comfortable with We had a two-

week vacation.)

(b) James has got three weeks' holiday.

(3) I do not feel qualified to explain the difference -- if any.

(4) If someone else does not answer your question, please post that

particular question again, and then probably someone will answer

your new thread.

THANK YOU

 

[emsr2d2]

Hullo!
Which one is correct ?
1-We had two weeks' holiday. Correct.
2-We had two week's holiday. Incorrect. "Two weeks" is plural, so the apostrophe goes after the "s".
3-We had two a two weeks' holiday. Incorrect. We had a two-week holiday.
4-We had two weeks holiday. Incorrect. Apostrophe needed, as in Sentence 1.

Thanks

​

When you're talking about a holiday as in a period of time you have spent away from home (vacation in AmE), then you would say "I had a two-week holiday". This means that you had one holiday and it lasted two weeks.

In BrE, if you're talking about holiday entitlement (the number of days that you are allowed to take off work), then you would say "At my old job, I got/had two weeks' holiday". "In my current job, I have three weeks' holiday, but in my previous job I had four weeks' holiday".

 

[TheParser]

Calypsovoice​

Well , thanks!
With regard to this : ​

Methinks, It's still ambiguous because according to The parser , it should be like this : ​

Yet , I am still confused! I've just skimmed my Oxford Learner's Pocket Grammar and I've found this example : ​

James has got three weeks' holiday . (( without a )) ​

The parser ​

Thanks for your minute explanation ​

Good way of expressing the same idea! ​

Great! Thank you​

GREETINGS

​

********** NOT a teacher **********

Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

(1) Because of Teacher EMSR, you and I now understand the

difference between those two sentences -- one with a, and one

without it.

(2) I think that you would like to know something I discovered.

The British prefer to say:

James has got three weeks' holiday.

Americans prefer to say:

James has three weeks' vacation.

THANK YOU

 

[emsr2d2]

********** NOT a teacher **********

Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

(1) Because of Teacher EMSR, you and I now understand the

difference between those two sentences -- one with a, and one

without it.

(2) I think that you would like to know something I discovered.

The British prefer to say:

James has got three weeks' holiday.

Americans prefer to say:

James has three weeks' vacation.

THANK YOU

I agree about the difference between holiday and vacation, but not necessarily the use of "has got" vs "has". Whilst it's true that "to have got" is used in BrE and not, I believe, in AmE, I wouldn't say that we are more likely to say "has got" than "has" in this context.

However (!), in BrE, I would expect the following exchange:

How many days' holiday do you get?
I get 25 days' holiday.

Here, "get" means "receive" or "to be entitled to".

 

[TheParser]

I agree about the difference between holiday and vacation, but not necessarily the use of "has got" vs "has". Whilst it's true that "to have got" is used in BrE and not, I believe, in AmE, I wouldn't say that we are more likely to say "has got" than "has" in this context.

However (!), in BrE, I would expect the following exchange:

How many days' holiday do you get?
I get 25 days' holiday.

Here, "get" means "receive" or "to be entitled to".

********** NOT a teacher **********

Hello, Teacher EMSR.

(1) Thank you for the clarification.

(2) While I was googling, I came across this example from Mr. Raymond

Murphy's popular grammar:

Julia has got three weeks' holiday.

(a) That sounded strange to my ears, so I consulted my copy of

his American edition and read:

I have three weeks' vacation.

(3) Maybe we could say that most British people prefer have got, and

most Americans prefer have in those examples.

THANK YOU

 

[bhaisahab]

********** NOT a teacher **********

Hello, Teacher EMSR.

(1) Thank you for the clarification.

(2) While I was googling, I came across this example from Mr. Raymond

Murphy's popular grammar:

Julia has got three weeks' holiday.

(a) That sounded strange to my ears, so I consulted my copy of

his American edition and read:

I have three weeks' vacation.

(3) Maybe we could say that most British people prefer have got, and

most Americans prefer have in those examples.

THANK YOU

I would say "Julia has three weeks holiday a year" NOT "Julia has got three weeks holiday a year.

 

[Sir Shakespeare]

I'd like to thank The parser and Teacher Emsr2d2 for the detailed clarification​

Thus , there is a difference, according to Teacher Emser2d2, between :​

I had a tow-week holiday
And
I had two weeks' holiday
I've got it well!
-------​

I think that you would like to know something I discovered.

The British prefer to say:​

James has got three weeks' holiday.​

Americans prefer to say:​

James has three weeks' vacation​

.​

Thank you, The parser

Well , I'm acquainted with this kind of difference between AmE and BrE in use , but since we're obliged , over here in Syria , to stick to either BrE or AmE , I am used to using BrE as my professors are . Anyway, I'm pleased about this piece of information
THANK YOU​

I would say "Julia has three weeks holiday a year" NOT "Julia has got three weeks holiday a year.​

Teahcer Bhaisahab , what's the reason behind choosing the "has'' instead of "has got" in this context ? Is it because it does not refer to possession :?:


​

 

[bhaisahab]

I'd like to thank The parser and Teacher Emsr2d2 for the detailed clarification​

Thus , there is a difference, according to Teacher Emser2d2, between :​

I had a tow-week holiday
And
I had two weeks' holiday
I've got it well!
-------​

.​

Thank you, The parser

Well , I'm acquainted with this kind of difference between AmE and BrE in use , but since we're obliged , over here in Syria , to stick to either BrE or AmE , I am used to using BrE as my professors are . Anyway, I'm pleased about this piece of information
THANK YOU​

Teahcer Bhaisahab , what's the reason behind choosing the "has'' instead of "has got" in this context ? Is it because it does not refer to possession :?:


​

To me "got" is either redundant or it means "Julia has received three weeks holiday every year" which is plainly nonsense. "Has got" is present perfect and simply not appropriate in this situation.

 

[emsr2d2]

Without wishing to cause more confusion, here's what I would say in different situations:

I get two weeks' holiday a year = This is my total holiday entitlement [for the year].

I got two weeks' holiday last year = That's how much holiday entitlement I received [last year], in total.

I've got ten days' holiday left to take = There are ten days remaining of my holiday entitlement. (Yes, in this instance I would use "I have got", not "I have" but I honestly can't tell you why.)

I went on holiday for two weeks = I went away for 14 consecutive days.

I went on a two-week holiday = I went away for 14 consecutive days.

I went on holiday six times last year, for a total of 23 days = self-explanatory!