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    #1

    Is it correct?

    The man says, "Who is blind & deaf like my servant? Who is so obedient to me like him? There's no one like him"

    So when I write the following, is it correct??

    "The man here speaks of a blind, deaf & obedient servant like whom is no one else"

    Is the above interpretation correct? Or is there a simpler one?

    Thanks in advance

  1. Tullia's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Is it correct?

    Quote Originally Posted by I'm still learning View Post
    The man says, "Who is blind & deaf like my servant? Who is so obedient to me like him? There's no one like him"

    So when I write the following, is it correct??

    "The man here speaks of a blind, deaf & obedient servant like whom is no one else"

    Is the above interpretation correct? Or is there a simpler one?

    Thanks in advance
    I think the servant is not literally "blind and deaf". The master is using it as a metaphor to explain how loyal his servant is to him; he "doesn't see or hear" things his master doesn't want him to. The master feels he can do or say anything in front of the servant and the servant will not object or comment or pass judgement, but will remain obedient.

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    #3

    Re: Is it correct?

    If we forget about the meaning of this sentence, is it gramatical?

    The man here speaks of a blind, deaf & obedient servant like whom is no one else
    Shouldn't we rewrite the italicised part as like whom no one else is?

    Thanks

    Richard

  2. konungursvia's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: Is it correct?

    It`s overly wordy.... `like no other.`

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    #5

    Re: Is it correct?

    Thanks to all of you!! Been a great help!!

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