I have a question about these two sentences below:
(1) If you had gone to the party, you could have seen him.
(2) If you had been to the party, you could have seen him.
It usually says in grammar books that there is a difference in meaning between have gone and have been, but as far as I can research no books refer to the difference of gone and been in subjunctive mood.
I wonder if there is any difference in meaning between (1) and (2), or if either of these sentences is ungrammatical.
I would appreciate if anyone can answer this question.
I don't see that the meaning is going to be affected by the mood, so changing it to the station doesn't change things for me- the been/gone distinction is still there.