to have learned vs had learned

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ostap77

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"She knew her son to have learned German."

OR

"She knew her son had learned German."

OR

"She knew that her son had learned German."
 
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riquecohen

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"She knew her son to have learned German."

OR

"She knew her son[STRIKE]e[/STRIKE] had learned German."

OR

"She knew that her son had learned German."
Only the 2nd and 3rd are correct. Watch out for typos.
 

5jj

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So the 1st one is incorrect?

I have a feeling about this, but I need to check my grammars, so don't take it as certain.

My feeling is that we can use the present or perfect infinitive of BE ofter know + person, but not after other verbs. Thus the first two senetnces below are acceptable, the second too not.

1. I know him to be honest and sincere.
2. I know him to have been brave.
3. I know him to learn German.
4. I know him to have learnt German.

As I am re-reading those sentences, I am finding the second strange. I am now more inclining towards:

2a. I have known him to be brave.

I am going off to hunt through my grammars. I shall return to this thread to see what others think.
 

ostap77

Key Member
Joined
Sep 9, 2010
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Ukrainian
Home Country
Ukraine
Current Location
Ukraine
I have a feeling about this, but I need to check my grammars, so don't take it as certain.

My feeling is that we can use the present or perfect infinitive of BE ofter know + person, but not after other verbs. Thus the first two senetnces below are acceptable, the second too not.

1. I know him to be honest and sincere.
2. I know him to have been brave.
3. I know him to learn German.
4. I know him to have learnt German.

As I am re-reading those sentences, I am finding the second strange. I am now more inclining towards:

2a. I have known him to be brave.

I am going off to hunt through my grammars. I shall return to this thread to see what others think.
I'd appreciate it.
 
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