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    #1

    The use of "be" after a subject

    Some grammarians consider only should a pure modal and argue that ought to be classified as a related structure.
    I read this quote from another post.

    I've seen on a variety of occasions the original form of the verb be is used directly after a subject. Is there a rule with regard to this usage? I only know the verb should be used after modal verbs.

    Many thanks

    Richard

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    #2

    Re: The use of "be" after a subject

    Yeah, it's the subjunctive of the verb 'be'.

    Considering the subject matter of your quote, it's a bit funny, but you could replace 'ought to' (subject) be (subjunctive of 'be') with ['ought to' should be] or even ['ought to' ought to be] Haha!

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    #3

    Re: The use of "be" after a subject

    Quote Originally Posted by cubezero3 View Post

    I've seen on a variety of occasions the original form of the verb be is used directly after a subject. Is there a rule with regard to this usage? I only know the verb should be used after modal verbs.

    Many thanks

    Richard
    The be in: Some grammarians consider only should a pure modal and argue that ought to be classified as a related structure is a subjunctive. Some writers use the subjunctive in utterances such as the one you quote. Quirk et al (1985) feel that the indicative (is) is the most usual type, the putative (should be) is more common in BrE than AmE, and the subjunctive (be) more common in AmE than BrE. In BrE the subjunctive is felt to be formal, and is found typically in official styles of writing.

    Your writer was perhaps trying to avoid using should when writing about should and ought to.

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