# Thread: Logical conversion

1. ## Logical conversion

non-finite version: He lost a fortune gambling.

finite version:
1. He lost a fortune when he was gambling.
2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.

Which one of the finite clause is the most approximate and logical to the true meaning of the non-finite clause?

Thank you very much

2. ## Re: Logical conversion

Originally Posted by panicmonger
non-finite version: He lost a fortune gambling.

finite version:
1. He lost a fortune when he was gambling.
2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.

Which one of the finite clause is the most approximate and logical to the true meaning of the non-finite clause?
I'd restructure that sentence: Which (one) of the finite clauses is logically closer in meaning to the non-finite clause?
That's a difficult question, because different constructions usually have different meanings. If I were really pressed to give an answer, I would say that #2 is probably closer in meaning, but I'd add a big warning sign - they do not mean the same thing.

3. ## Re: Logical conversion

Originally Posted by fivejedjon
they do not mean the same thing.
Do you mean
1. He lost a fortune gambling.
&
2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.
do not mean the same?
Thanks again.

4. ## Re: Logical conversion

Originally Posted by panicmonger
Do you mean
1. He lost a fortune gambling. & 2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.
do not mean the same?
They are certainly not identical in meaning.

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