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    #1

    Logical conversion

    non-finite version: He lost a fortune gambling.

    finite version:
    1. He lost a fortune when he was gambling.
    2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.


    Which one of the finite clause is the most approximate and logical to the true meaning of the non-finite clause?

    Thank you very much

  1. 5jj's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Logical conversion

    Quote Originally Posted by panicmonger View Post
    non-finite version: He lost a fortune gambling.

    finite version:
    1. He lost a fortune when he was gambling.
    2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.


    Which one of the finite clause is the most approximate and logical to the true meaning of the non-finite clause?
    I'd restructure that sentence: Which (one) of the finite clauses is logically closer in meaning to the non-finite clause?
    That's a difficult question, because different constructions usually have different meanings. If I were really pressed to give an answer, I would say that #2 is probably closer in meaning, but I'd add a big warning sign - they do not mean the same thing.

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    #3

    Re: Logical conversion

    Quote Originally Posted by fivejedjon View Post
    they do not mean the same thing.
    Do you mean
    1. He lost a fortune gambling.
    &
    2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.
    do not mean the same?
    Thanks again.

  2. 5jj's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: Logical conversion

    Quote Originally Posted by panicmonger View Post
    Do you mean
    1. He lost a fortune gambling. & 2. He lost a fortune because he gambled.
    do not mean the same?
    They are certainly not identical in meaning.

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