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    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • Canada
      • Current Location:
      • Switzerland

    • Join Date: Aug 2009
    • Posts: 1,676
    #1

    Which

    "Neither party may assign this Agreement without the prior written consent of the other party, which consent may be withheld with or without cause."

    I had to read that sentence a couple of times to understand it, and I'm still not sure that I do. The "which consent" part strikes me as odd. It would seem natural to me to write "whose consent." What do you think? Is the above construction unusual?

    Thanks!

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • England
      • Current Location:
      • England

    • Join Date: Aug 2009
    • Posts: 203
    #2

    Re: Which

    Hi,

    No it's perfectly normal and found in most legal texts.

    It's the written consent that is being withheld, i.e. a physical piece of paper and not the intangible belief of the person giving the consent.

    Rgds

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