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    #1

    Tenses

    I have a couple of questions about the two sentences that follow.

    "Since the entry into force of the Treaty of Lisbon on 1 December 2009 the three-pillar structure was abandoned, and the EC was no more, just as there is no longer any such thing as EC law. Now there is only the EU, and EU law." (Source: Stephen Weatherill, Cases & Materials on EU Law, 9th ed., p. 28.)

    "[W]as abandoned" and "the EC was no more" sound odd to me. I think the sentence would read better if one were to write "has been abandoned, and the EC is no more." I don't like the way the author is shifting tenses. What do you think?

    "Now there is only the EU, and EU law." Shouldn't "is" be "are"?

    Thanks!

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    #2

    Re: Tenses

    ***Not a teacher***

    "Since the entry into force of the Treaty of Lisbon on 1 December 2009 the three-pillar structure was abandoned, and the EC was no more..."

    <snip>

    I think the sentence would read better if one were to write "has been abandoned, and the EC is no more."
    I agree. I think it would be acceptable to say "Following the entry into force of the Treaty of Lisbon on 1 December 2009 the three-pillar structure was abandoned, and the EC was no more...", but the use of 'since', meaning 'from that moment in time' works best with the present perfect progressive in my opinion.

    "...the EC was no more, just as there is no longer any such thing as EC law. Now there is only the EU, and EU law."

    <snip>

    "Now there is only the EU, and EU law." Shouldn't "is" be "are"?
    Strictly speaking, I agree with you. However, is it possible the author is really saying "Now there is only the EU, and (there is only) EU law" - which would make sense to me from the context as EU and EU law refer back to EC and EC law respectively?

    Ade

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