[Grammar] Do we use subjuntive mood after DEPLORE

Status
Not open for further replies.

Kotfor

Member
Joined
Feb 17, 2011
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Ukrainian
Home Country
Belarus
Current Location
Ukraine
Do we use subjuntive mood after DEPLORE or not only?

1) They can't deplore that a man be weak. (is it ok)

2) I deeply deplore that you and others are allowed to call your religious beliefs mathematics.
 

BobK

Moderator
Staff member
Joined
Jul 29, 2006
Location
Spencers Wood, near Reading, UK
Member Type
Retired English Teacher
Native Language
English
Home Country
UK
Current Location
UK
In some parts of the world the subjunctive is more popular than in others ;-) In any case, here you are talking about a fact; in 2, people are allowed to call your religious beliefs mathematics. The subjunctive here would sound hyper-correct to me - a bit like knocking at a door and calling 'It is I'. Nobody could fault its grammar; few would say it.

You can always avoid the problem by nominalizing/creating a noun phrase: e.g. 'I deplore the way you have of always answering a question with a question'

b
 

Coolfootluke

Member
Joined
Feb 10, 2011
Member Type
Other
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
Do we use subjuntive mood after DEPLORE or not only?

1) They can't deplore that a man be weak. (is it ok)

2) I deeply deplore that you and others are allowed to call your religious beliefs mathematics.
I am not a teacher.

1. It took me a few readings to get why you thought the subjunctive might go there. I see it now, but I have to say no, partly because it took me so long, and mostly because the subjunctive is much deader than that in my dialect.

2. I can't see it here. The "that" seems to mean that they are allowed to do that already, making the subjunctive wrong.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top