In the following paragraph, I wonder if "who" were actually "whom":
The BMW eventually ended up at the house in Blackburn and while Naveed spent time with another older teenage girl, who they had picked up in Burnley, Hussain went on to have sex with the second girl.(source: dailymail.co.uk)
Thanks in advance.
NOT A TEACHER
DEAR MR. ROSE:
(1) Congratulations!!! You are 100% correct. According to
the rules that some people try to follow, "whom" should be
used for the object.
(2) In your sentence, "whom" is the object of "had picked up."
In other words, "...while X spent time with another girl, they had
picked up whom in Burnley, Y went on to ...."
(3) Of course, many people nowadays no longer follow the
"whom" rule -- including many newspapers. (I think that some of the
"better" newspapers try to follow the rule. Maybe some newspapers
do not follow the rule because they want to be accepted by their
readers as "ordinary newspapers for ordinary people.")
(4) I always try to use "who" and "whom" correctly. There
are people who ridicule us fans of "whom." They say that the
"rule" is old-fashioned and that almost no one follows it anymore.
I always treat such criticism with courtesy and respect -- and
then I ignore their advice. It is impossible to please everyone
in this world. I'm pretty certain that most university instructors
hope that their students observe the rule.
(a) So welcome to the "whom" fan club. I hope that you sign up
I am interested in your detailed explanation. Absolutely I could not wait to join the "whom" fan club.
Would you kindly tell me if there is any difference in the usages of "who" and "whom" between British English and American English?
The distinction between "who" and "whom" is not followed by a great number of American speakers.
Using "whom" can make it appear that you are trying to show that you are superior in knowledge. I would only use it in formal writing.
The only time "whom" tends to be used is immediately after a preposition.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
Is that acceptable in English tests? (I mean only FORMAL grammar can be correct in English tests).
I have the following sentences:
1. Mary whom I love doesn't like rose.
2. Mary who I love doesn't like rose.
3. Mary the heart of whom I have won doesn't like rose.
4. Mary whose heart I have won doesn't like rose.
Can #2 replace #1 to express the same idea?
Can #3 replace #4 to express the same idea?
Is the #4 correct?
I think it is better to use passive form here!
Thank you so much!