Today I would like to ask about the use of pass with regard to so-called "Subject-Verb Agreement."
If you look up the word "pass" in a dictionary, you will come across such sentence as (1) given below.
(1) Six years have passed since my father died.
The reason why have, instead of has, is used is that "six years" is a plural noun phrase, of course. However, if you think of "six years" as a unit, in my opinion, you can also say "Six years has passed..."
I want to know whether there is anything in my way of thinking.
Thanks in advance.
To add to the above, it tends to indicate that you don't agree with the term; you personally have something against it.
You're saying, "That's what they call it, but I disagree."
Thank you very much for both the answers.
I consider 'Six years has passed. . .' to be incorrect.
I find it okay dependingn on whether you think of it as one big chunk of time or six individual years.
How do you feel about "Six years is a long time to wait"?
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
Sometimes "six years" means six seperate years, and sometimes it means a time period.
How do you feel about "Six pints are a lot of milk to drink at once"? (I think it sounds silly. It obviously means "a quantity of six pints".)
"Six miles are a long way to walk." How about this?