English Freak
Member
- Joined
- Jan 13, 2011
- Member Type
- English Teacher
- Native Language
- Persian
- Home Country
- Iran
- Current Location
- Iran
I think it's grammatically correct to use a singular noun after "there isn't any ...", isn't it?
(e.g. There isn't any chair in this palace.)
I would like to know how it is grammatically justified.
Please provide me with a good reference if possible.
(e.g. There isn't any chair in this palace.)
I would like to know how it is grammatically justified.
Please provide me with a good reference if possible.