1-I said something so that she would remember me.
2-I said something, so that she would remember me.
Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences?
Does the comma change anything?
Does "1" mean "I said something that I believe would make her remember me."?
Does "2" mean "I said something, beleiving the fact that I said something would make her remember me." (I could have said anything. It did not matter what I said.)
I do not see why the past perfect should be used there.
A-An hour ago, at the meeting, I said something, so that she would remember me next year.
The question is whether the comma after "something" does modify the meaning. But I do not think that tenses come into play here. But I am now afraid that I might be missing something bigger than what I was looking for here!
I wouldn't use a comma.
Nor would I, but if I did I'd use a past perfect (in the rewritten, unnumbered versions): "I said something, believing [that] the fact that I had said something would make her remember me." (What she would remember was 'Oh I remember him. He's the one who said....'; indirect speech in the past => back-shift. (As I said, not everone would bother about the back-shifting.) I regard the comma and the back-shifting as related (though not in a formal way).