I can afford to go on a holiday.
I can afford going on a holiday.
I've learned that only the first sentence is grammatically correct but
some grammar book say the second sentence is also acceptable.
Is it possible to use both to-infinitive and gerund after afford?
I'm pretty much confused.
Still - according to my dictionary - you can say: 'I canít afford a new dress'
If nouns may follow the word 'afford', why noun clauses like 'going on holiday' can't? Is this a matter of custom like with gramatically incorrect question tag 'aren't I' or do some grammar rules (which I am unable to understand) regulate this?
One usually uses the gerund form after "to be", so "I can afford to be going on holiday" would be acceptable, if slightly odd-sounding.
If a verb comes after another verb, one uses the infinitive, not the gerund.
[Not a teacher]
I can afford to go on holiday.
I can afford a holiday.
In what grammar book did you read that "I can afford going on a holiday" is correct?
With a type of holiday which involves the name of the activity ending in -ing but which serves as a noun, it would work:
I can afford skiing next year.
verbs followed by gerunds and infinitives
PS: Still, this is my favorite grammar reference. ^.^;;