I'm seeking answer for two questions here, would you please let me know If it's not OK doing so?
1st: Is that okay to take it as a fixed rule that 'any others' is the plural form for 'anyone else'?
2nd: Is it correct to assume that if there would be a plural noun after 'any other', we could omit the noun and add the 's' to the 'other' as in the below sentence?
These oranges taste sweeter than any others I've ever tried.
Last edited by 5jj; 24-Jan-2012 at 15:06. Reason: typo