Student or Learner
And in no time did they take action.
And in no time they took action.
Are both sentences good English? Thank you in advance.
Thanks a lot, Raymott.
After I read your reply, I searched the Internet, and found that Standard English and Indian Usage--Vocabulary and Grammar by J. Sethi has a sentence like this: In no time did they vacate the house (=They vacated the house in no time). Could it be possible that this inversion is regional usage?
In no time was the president aware of what was happening.
Is this sentence correct?
Does it mean that president was aware of what was happening very soon?
If it does then, I think , there should be no inversion structure.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
So, can't it be meant as President was( or made) aware of what was happening in a relatively short time.?
If it can then shouldn't it be wrong to use inversion at all?
And what is the difference between in no time and at no time?
Last edited by david11; 29-Jan-2012 at 14:57. Reason: Left be after can't it
david11 is correct. Without inversion (and with a comma), the sentence would be:
"In no time, the president was aware of what was happening." That is, the president was very quickly aware of what was happening.
Don't you use that phrase in US?
"In no time, " means "immediately, without delay, quickly". The following clause is not inverted.
"I heard a scream and in no time I was in the woman's room."
"I heard a scream but at no time was I in the woman's room."