Respective

Status
Not open for further replies.

Allen165

Key Member
Joined
Aug 8, 2009
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
English
Home Country
Canada
Current Location
Switzerland
"Payment of the above fee will be made in two installments after receipt of the respective invoices."

I don't think "respective" is necessary. What do you think?

Thanks!
 

susiedq

Member
Joined
Sep 27, 2010
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
respective invoices = invoices mentioned before or the ones we are talking about.

You could delete the word, as long as it is very clear what invoices you are talking about.
 

Allen165

Key Member
Joined
Aug 8, 2009
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
English
Home Country
Canada
Current Location
Switzerland
Does this clause make sense to you?

Payment of the above fee will be made in two installments within 30 days after receipt of the invoices. The first installment in the amount of 50,000 Euro is due on the signing of this Agreement and the second installment in the amount of 50,000 Euro on May 1, 2012.

I'm not sure I understand it. Once the agreement is signed and the amount is invoiced, you have 30 days to pay. So you don't have to pay right after signing the agreement. But to me, the word "due" implies you have to pay right after signing the agreement.

Thanks!
 

5jj

Moderator
Staff member
Joined
Oct 14, 2010
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
British English
Home Country
Czech Republic
Current Location
Czech Republic
It is fine. The timing of the obligation to pay depends on the tense of the verb used. With scheduled events, the present simple is often used for future events. So, 'It is due 30 days after X' is fine.
 

Allen165

Key Member
Joined
Aug 8, 2009
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
English
Home Country
Canada
Current Location
Switzerland
It is fine. The timing of the obligation to pay depends on the tense of the verb used. With scheduled events, the present simple is often used for future events. So, 'It is due 30 days after X' is fine.

So "due on the signing of this Agreement" and "within 30 days of receipt of the invoices" aren't contradictory? The money's due within 30 days of the signing of the agreement, and not on the signing of the agreement?
 

5jj

Moderator
Staff member
Joined
Oct 14, 2010
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
British English
Home Country
Czech Republic
Current Location
Czech Republic
Sorry. I was answering a question you didn't ask! You are right. That passage is not clear - unless the agreement itself contains the invoices, and the date is 1 May 2012.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top