"If I can get a haircut this weekend, I'll go to the party."
this sentence seems fine, but I haven't seen any examples on line showing a modal auxiliary in the 'if-clause'. Is it grammatical?
Thank you for any help.
***** NOT A TEACHER *****(1) I found something that may interest you. Two scholars give these examples:
If it rains, I will stay at home.
If it should/were to rain, I will stay at home.
They explain that the hypothetical conditional is "weaker." That is, there is less possibility of rain.
Source: The Grammar Book (1983 edition) by Mesdames Celce-Murcia and Larsen-Freeman.
(2) The is only my guess:
(a) If I get a haircut, I will come to your party.
(b) If I can get a haircut, I will come to your party.
(i) Maybe this sentence indicates less possibility of my getting a haircut.
Yes, I'm a native speaker of English (Can't always rest on your NS English laurels, when you're teaching the grammar, I'm afraid, for me at least.)
How about this sentence?:
-'If you can have dinner with a famous person, who will you choose?'
This sentence is in the 1st conditional but it doesn't 'sit right' for me. 'Having dinner with a famous person' is a distinctly fantastic/ unreal experience, so I'm guessing for that reason the sentence must be rendered in the 2nd conditional
-'If you could have dinner with a famous person, who would you choose?'
To your knowledge, is the 1st conditional in the above example ungrammatical given the context? This is what led me to question if modal aux. verbs are possible in the 'if-clause' of the 1st conditional in the first place.
Thank you for any feedback.