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  1. keannu's Avatar
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    #1

    American conditional

    I've seen, in numerous counter-factual conditionals in American colloquialism, that they omit "had" before "past participle" while I can see "had" in almost every writing.
    Is it because it's for briefness in spoken English? And is it common only in American English not in British English where I've seen or heard few?

    A: I couldn't see Brad Pitt yesterday when I expected him there.
    B: If you saw(had seen) him, you would have been on cloud nine.

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    #2

    Re: American conditional

    That's not common in BrE; you might hear If you seen him, though- I've heard that in some places.

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    #3

    Re: American conditional

    Quote Originally Posted by Tdol View Post
    That's not common in BrE; you might hear If you seen him, though- I've heard that in some places.
    I would say this is as common in AmE as say, someone saying "me and him went to the park" (or even "him and I"!). Happens all the time.

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    #4

    Re: American conditional

    Might probably underestimates the frequency in BrE.

  2. keannu's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: American conditional

    Do Americans say so(If you saw him, you would have been..) knowing it's a mistake but for shortening? Or is it almost a common trend not to be ignored? I don't know if I can include such a short form as a regular grammar pattern to let Koreans know about. Maybe colloquialism is unrelated to grammar....

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