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    #1

    Question About 'not since'

    "No one has lived there for nearly two thousand years- not since the summer of the year AD 79, to be exact."
    Can somebody tell me why the author used 'not since' here? Can I use 'since' intead? Because it is only about from that time on.

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    #2

    Re: About 'not since'

    Can I use 'since' intead?
    No. What does that 'not' do in 'not since'? What it does is reiterate the negation in the preceeding statement (has not lived).

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    #3

    Re: About 'not since'

    Thank you very much!

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    #4

    Re: About 'not since'

    Quote Originally Posted by BrianW View Post
    Can I use 'since' intead? Because it is only about from that time on.
    Yes you can.

    No one has lived there for nearly two thousand years - since the summer of the year AD 79, to be exact.
    That's probably the sentence we'd expect.

    No one has lived there for nearly two thousand years- not since the summer of the year AD 79, to be exact.
    The speaker is emphasing the not-living idea. The purist might object that what is being said is 'No one has lived there not since [...] AD79', but most of us would simply think that a second, reinforcing, idea has been added: no one has lived there for nearly two thousand years - 'they' have not lived there since [...] AD79.

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    #5

    Re: About 'not since'

    I agree that you don't have to use not there.

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