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    #1

    Neither before...nor after ...+ negative inversion

    "Neither before the Declaration of Independence of Ukraine nor after the 1991 referendum in December did Washington regard aspirations of the Ukrainian people for self-determination." Is it OK with the negative inversion "..did Washington.." here?
    Last edited by ostap77; 25-May-2012 at 14:40.

  1. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Neither before...nor after ...+ negative inversion

    Yes.

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    #3

    Re: Neither before...nor after ...+ negative inversion

    Would this structure be grammatically OK "It's not until the Declaration of........nor after the 1991 referendum did Washington...."? Or "it's not until ...."is always followed by "that"?

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    #4

    Re: Neither before...nor after ...+ negative inversion

    Quote Originally Posted by ostap77 View Post
    Would this structure be grammatically OK "It's not until the Declaration of........nor after the 1991 referendum did Washington...."? Or "it's not until ...."is always followed by "that"?
    If you start it that way, it would be "It was not until [after] the Declaration of ... that he ..."

  3. 5jj's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: Neither before...nor after ...+ negative inversion

    Quote Originally Posted by ostap77 View Post
    Would this structure be grammatically OK "It's not until the Declaration of........nor after the 1991 referendum did Washington...."? Or "it's not until ...."is always followed by "that"?
    You can't start it that way. "It was not until the Declaration of Independence of Ukraine nor after the 1991 referendum in December did Washington regard aspirations of the Ukrainian people for self-determination" makes no sense.

    Actually, I don't think the original makes real sense. What is supposed to be meant by Washington regarding the aspirations of the Ukrainian people?

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