[Grammar] Should I put "did" in inversion this sentence?

[eggcracker]

"From India _______which, when they later come into Europe,were known as Arabic numerals."
Is it grammatical if I both use "came the numerals" and "did the numerals came" in the blank?

 

[emsr2d2]

"From India _______which, when they later come into Europe,were known as Arabic numerals."
Is it grammatical if I both use "came the numerals" and "did the numerals came" in the blank?

I'm not sure I understand. You want to know if you can say:

"From India did the numerals came, which, when they later come into Europe, were known as Arabic numerals"?

The simple answer is no. There are multiple problems with that. As far as your thread title is concerned, using "did" is not appropriate. An inversion would be rather unnatural for what you want to say, but if you absolutely had to, it would be:

From India came the numerals (no comma) which, when they later came to Europe, were known as Arabic numerals."

It would be far simpler and far more natural to say "The numbers which, when they arrived in Europe, were known as Arabic numerals, actually came from India".

 

[eggcracker]

I'm not sure I understand. You want to know if you can say:

"From India did the numerals came, which, when they later come into Europe, were known as Arabic numerals"?

The simple answer is no. There are multiple problems with that. As far as your thread title is concerned, using "did" is not appropriate. An inversion would be rather unnatural for what you want to say, but if you absolutely had to, it would be:

From India came the numerals (no comma) which, when they later came to Europe, were known as Arabic numerals."

It would be far simpler and far more natural to say "The numbers which, when they arrived in Europe, were known as Arabic numerals, actually came from India".

Thank you for delicate explanations. emsr2d2.
Is it still grammatical and natural to leave out comma(,) between numerals and actually in your sentence like below?

"The numbers which, when they arrived in Europe, were known as Arabic numerals actually came from India"​

 

[emsr2d2]

Thank you for delicate explanations. emsr2d2.
Is it still grammatical and natural to leave out comma(,) between numerals and actually in your sentence like below?

"The numbers which, when they arrived in Europe, were known as Arabic numerals actually came from India"​

In my opinion, no. Leaving "were known as Arabic numerals actually came from India" is unnatural. A break is required. If the sentence were a lot shorter, I might feel differently: "The numbers known as Arabic numerals actually came from India" is OK.