Does 1) and 2) have the same meaning?

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NewHopeR

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1) The scientists used the method in numerous studies until 2000.
2) The scientists used the method in numerous studies by 2000.
 

5jj

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1) The scientists used the method in numerous studies until 2000.
2) The scientists used the method in numerous studies by 2000.
The second is not natural English
 

Rover_KE

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Better title hint: The scientists used the method....

'Thread titles should include all or part of the word/phrase being discussed.' (Forum Guidelines)

Rover
 

NewHopeR

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The second is not natural English

I wonder why.
I got an example that "by 2000" seems proper there:
When 1976 came and went, the date for a cure, or at least substantial progress, kept being put off. It was going to happen by 2000, then by 2015.
 

bhaisahab

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I wonder why.
I got an example that "by 2000" seems proper there:
When 1976 came and went, the date for a cure, or at least substantial progress, kept being put off. It was going to happen by 2000, then by 2015.

"The scientists had used the method in numerous studies by 2000." This is possible.
 

NewHopeR

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emsr2d2

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Here "by 2000" means "until 2000"?

No. It means "in the years leading up to [and possibly including]".

We will continue doing studies until 2015.
We hope to have a cure by 2015.
 

Barb_D

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Situation A:
Method 1 is the normal way to test for something, but it's time consuming and expensive. Someone, in the year 2000, found Method B. It was better. Now, in 2012, we can say that scientists used method 1 in many studies until 2000. The understanding is that after 2000, they used something else. (Or maybe they just stopped doing studies.)

Situation B:
For a long time, no one knew how to do something that would allow results to be compared. Then, in 1999, someone figured out a way that would allow everyone to do things the same way. It was so popular that scientists had used the method in many studies by 2000. (It only took one year for it be used many times.)
 
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