As we know some causative verbs such as 'have' and 'get' can have past participles as objective complements.
However, one of my grammar books says, 'make' cannot have past participle as an objective complement.
Is it true?
Actually I've taught my students that not only 'have' and 'get' but also 'make'
agrees with past participle complements, and give them the below sentence.
'He made his car repaired'
Is the above sentence grammatical?
Will it be safe teaching my students that we can use past participles
as objective complement for 'have, get' and 'make'?
Last edited by wotcha; 26-Aug-2012 at 21:57.
Last edited by BobK; 27-Aug-2012 at 14:10. Reason: Fix typo
Thank you so much! Believe it or not, most of Korean ESL teachers teach
students that 'make' can have past participle complement.
agree with Chicken Sandwich that I would say "He had his car repaired." I can only speak to northeast U.S. English for sure but "made" is not correct there.
You can use have and get in the causative structures you're asking about. I'm having a difficult time thinking of an example with "make." I won't say 100% that it's impossible (although I'd like to haha), but anything that comes to mind sounds strange to me.
Those are thought-provoking examples, but you can't generalize from them a 'rule' that *'make can take an object complement'. The reflexive pronoun is figurative: myself = 'my argument/opinion/contention...'; or myself = 'my voice/statement/utterance...'. Whenever you see a reflexive pronoun you can expect one of these exceptions. If you had something physically done to you ('yourself' - but not figurative) you couldn't use 'make': *'I made myself tattooed' is wrong; you have yourself tattooed.
But good catch!
Last edited by BobK; 27-Aug-2012 at 19:34. Reason: Added'tatoo' example
I love you guys ~