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    #1

    Is the grammar " no one need have died" okay?

    Should it be "no one needed to have died"?

    Context:

    In Xinyang, people starved at the doors of the grain warehouses. As they died, they shouted, "Communist Party, Chairman Mao, save us". If the granaries of Henan and Hebei had been opened, no one need have died. As people were dying in large numbers around them, officials did not think to save them. Their only concern was how to fulfill the delivery of grain.[7]

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    #2

    Re: Is the grammar " no one need have died" okay?

    Quote Originally Posted by NewHopeR View Post
    Should it be "no one needed to have died"?

    Context:

    In Xinyang, people starved at the doors of the grain warehouses. As they died, they shouted, "Communist Party, Chairman Mao, save us". If the granaries of Henan and Hebei had been opened, no one need have died. As people were dying in large numbers around them, officials did not think to save them. Their only concern was how to fulfill the delivery of grain.[7]
    "no one need have died" is fine.

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    #3

    Re: Is the grammar " no one need have died" okay?

    Quote Originally Posted by Gillnetter View Post
    "no one need have died" is fine.
    Why not "no one needs have died" or "no one needed have died"?

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    #4

    Re: Is the grammar " no one need have died" okay?

    Quote Originally Posted by NewHopeR View Post
    Why not "no one needs have died" or "no one needed have died"?
    (non-native teacher)

    Semi-modals, when used as modals, although finite, do not receive tense, number and person inflections, that is why.

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