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  1. Key Member
    Academic
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      • Native Language:
      • Armenian
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      • Iran
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      • United States

    • Join Date: Nov 2002
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    #1

    can any other man do that?

    Are these correct:

    1-Can any other man do that?

    -Yes, any other man can do that.

    2-Can any other man do that?

    -Yes, there is one other man who can do that.

    "1" is supposed to mean: Can every other man do that?
    "2" is supposed to mean: Is there any other man who can do that?

    "1" and "2" are the same sentence actually, but their contexts differ. I think they would not be pronounced in the exact same way though.

    Gratefully,
    Navi.

  2. Editor, UsingEnglish.com
    English Teacher
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    #2

    Re: can any other man do that?

    I would stress any more in the second.

  3. Barb_D's Avatar
    Moderator
    Other
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      • Native Language:
      • American English
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      • United States
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    • Join Date: Mar 2007
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    #3

    Re: can any other man do that?

    I think it would be a bit more natural to say:
    Can anyone do that?
    Is there anyone else who can do that?

    If you must restrict it to men:
    Can any man do that?
    Is there any other man who can do that?
    Last edited by 5jj; 22-Oct-2012 at 14:03.
    I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.

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