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  1. Odessa Dawn's Avatar
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    #1

    nobody misunderstand v nobody misunderstands



    It was Abbas’ way of escaping forward. He needed to quell the mounting anger and resentment of his lacking leadership. His message targeted and continues to be aimed at dual audiences: Palestinians, thus the word “resistance” and international, thus ‘non-violence’ and “so that nobody misunderstand us.”


    More: the fourth paragraph Manipulating History: The Different Faces of ‘Popular Resistance’ in Palestine - by Ramzy Baroud

    Then we have

    Even today, in those parts of central India, things are not contemporary, they are at least two thousand years old. Nobody has much to do. Everybody seems to have enough time to loaf around. I really mean that everybody is a loafer. I simply mean the literal meaning, not any association that has arisen about the word. So, all the “loafers” were there. Please write the word in inverted commas so nobody misunderstands.

    More: the third paragraph Otherwise


    Which one satisfies English grammar rule?


  2. 5jj's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: nobody misunderstand v nobody misunderstands

    Which do you think does?

  3. Odessa Dawn's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: nobody misunderstand v nobody misunderstands




    The second one because nobody being used in an example right here followed by was; nobody pronoun, n - definition in American English Dictionary - Cambridge Dictionary Online

  4. 5jj's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: nobody misunderstand v nobody misunderstands

    Yes

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