Sorry - I assumed this was in the Ask a Teacher forum. All but the most advanced students of ELT want to avoid ambiguity. What you do here is your own business
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
Just as your assumption, first I learned that “ In even more informal style, the operator is sometimes included with postponed identification to some dialects, there may be inversion when the verb is be. . He is a completely idiot, is John. = John is..“ (Quirk, p.1301) It reminds me of the sentence “She’s had a hard life, has Ma Parker.” Then the question comes to me why does Quirk only point out “when the verb is be” and without an example of verb do ?
Please help me ,teachers!Thanks!
Is that p 1301 Quirk quote right? It should be either 'He is a complete idiot...' or 'He is completely idiotic...'.