[General] Does the "have sth done" structure imply the subjucts intentially want it to be done?

[cubezero3]

Does the "have sth done" structure imply the subjucts intentially want it to be done?

Hello, everyone.

I have got a textbook called New Concept English by L.G. Alexander. In lesson 66, the writer tries to illustrate the usage of the "have sth done" structure by providing four examples, which are shown in the following:

I had my car washed.
I'm going to have my suite cleaned.
I will have to have my watch repaired.
I didn't have my watch repaired.

As a result, I have been under the impression that the structure implies that the subjects want to do something and therefore ask other people to do it.

Just a moment ago, while I was reading a report from the Guardian, this title caught my attention.

Lindsay Sandiford: Bali court upholds death sentence for smuggling cocaine
Briton convicted of drug smuggling has 14 days to take case to Indonesian supreme court after having appeal rejected
Lindsay Sandiford: Bali court upholds death sentence for smuggling cocaine | World news | guardian.co.uk

If this poor lady wanted the appeal to be rejected, I would assume she wouldn't have appealed int he first place.

Now I feel I am caught between a reputable textbook and the mighty Gardian parper. Could anyone expand on this issue please?

Many thanks

Rich

 

[5jj]

Re: Does the "have sth done" structure imply the subjucts intentially want it to be d

It's a different use of 'have'

I had my car stolen.

This is an informal way of saying "Something happened to me - my car was stolen". What happened to that woman was that her appeal was rejected.