simple gerund vs having p.p

Status
Not open for further replies.

jenniepearl

Member
Joined
Mar 25, 2013
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
Korean
Home Country
South Korea
Current Location
South Korea
When we use "to have p.p.", it means it happened before.
e.g. He seems to have gone there yesterday.
In this case, we cannot say "He seems to go there yesterday.*"

Then how about using gerund?
I am ashamed of having done such a thing yesterday.

Then how about just saying " I am ashamed of doing such a thing yesterday"?
Gerund usually implies that it was done before or it is being done now, as far as I know.
So we don't have to use "having p.p." strictly.
If it is so,k can you tell me when we should strictly use "having p.p.'"?

It's confusing me.

Thank you.
 

nyota

Senior Member
Joined
Jun 9, 2009
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
Polish
Home Country
Poland
Current Location
Australia
I'm not a teacher.

All things considered, I am really happy about having had that surgery. (My life is so much easier now.)

If instead of 'having had', you only used 'having' it could mean you're still awaiting the surgery. I also believe that if you provide more context (in brackets), which makes it clear whether you're talking about the past or something that's about to happen, you might just get away with 'having'.

Please wait for confirmation from native English speakers and teachers.
 

Raymott

VIP Member
Joined
Jun 29, 2008
Member Type
Academic
Native Language
English
Home Country
Australia
Current Location
Australia
When we use "to have p.p.", it means it happened before.
e.g. He seems to have gone there yesterday.
Not necessarily. "You need to have done this by next Monday."

In this case, we cannot say "He seems to go there yesterday.*"
But we can say, judging from the past, "He seems to go there every week."

Then how about using gerund?
I am ashamed of having done such a thing yesterday. Yes.

Then how about just saying " I am ashamed of doing such a thing yesterday"? No. You might hear it, but it's wrong.
Gerund usually implies that it was done before or it is being done now, as far as I know. No, I think you should stop thinking that way; it's not working. It depends on the tense you're using, and the totality of what you're saying. "What are you doing tomorrow?" refers to the future.

So we don't have to use "having p.p." strictly.
If it is so,k can you tell me when we should strictly use "having p.p.'"?

It's confusing me.

Thank you.
I haven't got a handy list of when you should use "having + pp", but your rules don't seem to work. Maybe you could search for lots of sentences with "having + pp" in them and see what they have in common.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top