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    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Armenian
      • Home Country:
      • Iran
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    • Join Date: Nov 2002
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    #1

    who had insulted

    1- We were told that he had slapped the man who insulted his wife.
    2-We were told that he had slapped the man who had insulted his wife.

    Can we be sure that in "1" the slapping precedes the insulting?

    Can we be sure that in "2" the slapping follows the insulting?

    Gratefully,
    Navi.

  1. Barb_D's Avatar
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • American English
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      • United States
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      • United States

    • Join Date: Mar 2007
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    #2

    Re: who had insulted

    To the contrary, common sense causes us to think that the man insulted his wife, and then the husband slapped him in 1. It's only more explicitly stated in 2.
    I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Armenian
      • Home Country:
      • Iran
      • Current Location:
      • United States

    • Join Date: Nov 2002
    • Posts: 2,554
    #3

    Re: who had insulted

    Thank you very much Barb-D.

    3-We knew that he had paid the man who did the job.
    4-We knew that he had paid the man who had done the job.

    In the case of these sentences, could we tell if the paying preceded the doing of the job or followed it?

    Gratefully,
    Navi.

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