[Grammar] Difference between suffixes and endings

[bester]

I jotted down lecture notes, and they explain the difference in the following way:

- suffixes: connected with semantics, with meaning. They can change grammar category (unlike endings).
- endings: connected with syntax.

Providing the above is true, can you please give me an example of each of these? I have one but not sure to which group it belongs to:

dom-ek

Dom is equivalent to english house, while domek simply means a small house. So is ek a suffix or an ending?

Thank you for any help.

 

[emsr2d2]

Are you trying to apply an English grammar rule to a non-English word?

 

[5jj]

- suffixes: connected with semantics, with meaning. They can change grammar category (unlike endings).
- endings: connected with syntax.

Providing the above is true, .

I don't think it is true. 'Ending' is not a grammatical term. Suffixes may be derivational, changing one type of word into another, for example. noun to adjective - father + ly = fatherly, or inflectional, changing some form of grammatical category such as case, number, tense, etc, for example, present to past - like + d = liked.

 

[Nicklexoxo]

Hello, bester.

I'm from Russia, Moscow.
In our language there is this word (dom), but small house we call домик (domik).
dom - it's a root of word
ik - it's a suffix.


I think that your word "domek" has analogy structure.

 

[Tdol]

Providing the above is true

It's not a distinction I have come across in English.

 

[Jaskin]

hi,
Please note I'm not a teacher nor a native speaker;

As far as I can understand and if it's the same case as in Polish then domek it's diminutive form of dom.
Diminutives aren't standard part of the English language.
The one time I came across the term endings was while reading a book about Polish grammar in English and it was used as an umbrella term for any morphological changes at the end of a word.
The distinction between suffixes and endings is sometimes made in proto-indo-european language.
cheers.