Hi! I'm new here! I'm studying grammar for a final exam so probably I will be asking many questions.
My question is:
In a sentence where the Indirect Object is in a prepositional phrase as in this example:
Dad gave a car to Jhon.
Is the verb still considered as ditransitive? As if it was "Dad gave John a car."
Gilda from Argentina.
Pope of the Dictionary.com Forum
Being strictly accurate, when the verb give occurs in
He gave his son a car.
it is functioning ditransitively, whereas in semantically identical
He gave a car to his son.
it is functioning monotransitively.
Generally speaking, however, 'give' is classed as a ditransitive verb simply because it is capable of governing a (prepositionally unmarked) indirect object.