Sir, thus it is. This is the proportion. Let me see....

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sb70012

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In 1747 Johnson published the plan of his Dictionary, and the next seven years were occupied in compiling it-although he had
been sanguine enough to count on finishing it in three years. When in 1748 Dr. Adams, a friend from Oxford days questioned his ability to carry out such a work alone in so short time, and reminded him that the Dictionary of the French Academy had been compiled by forty academicians working for forty years, Johnson replied with humorous jingoism: “ Sir, thus it is. This is the proportion. Let me see; forty times forty is sixteen hundred. As three to sixteen hundred, so is the proportion of an Englishman to a Frenchman.”

Source: The Norton Anthology of English Literature, Samuel Johnson (1709-1784)

Hello teachers,

I know the meanings of each word but I can’t get the main goal of the bold written part.
What does Johnson want to say by these words? I really can’t understand the bold written part.

Thanks in advance.​
 

MikeNewYork

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In 1747 Johnson published the plan of his Dictionary, and the next seven years were occupied in compiling it-although he had
been sanguine enough to count on finishing it in three years. When in 1748 Dr. Adams, a friend from Oxford days questioned his ability to carry out such a work alone in so short time, and reminded him that the Dictionary of the French Academy had been compiled by forty academicians working for forty years, Johnson replied with humorous jingoism: “ Sir, thus it is. This is the proportion. Let me see; forty times forty is sixteen hundred. As three to sixteen hundred, so is the proportion of an Englishman to a Frenchman.”

Source: The Norton Anthology of English Literature, Samuel Johnson (1709-1784)

Hello teachers,

I know the meanings of each word but I can’t get the main goal of the bold written part.
What does Johnson want to say by these words? I really can’t understand the bold written part.

Thanks in advance.​

He had said that he (1 person) would finish his dictionary in 3 years. This is 3 man-years. The French Academy used 40 people for 40 years. That is 1600 man-years. He made fun of the French by concluding that 3 English man-years was equal to 1600 French man-years.
 

sb70012

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As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English man years = 1600 French man years

or

As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English men = 1600 french men


Which one is correct?


I just cant understand this.
 

bhaisahab

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As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English man years = 1600 French man years

or

As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English men = 1600 french men


Which one is correct?


I just cant understand this.

One man year = the amount of work carried out by one man in one year.
 

sb70012

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One man year = the amount of work carried out by one man in one year.

My friend, I know what One Man Year is.

I just asked:

As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English man years = 1600 French man years

or

As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English men = 1600 french men


Which one is correct?


I just cant understand this which is mentioned in my text.
 

bhaisahab

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My friend, I know what One Man Year is.

I just asked:

As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English man years = 1600 French man years

or

As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English men = 1600 french men


Which one is correct?


I just cant understand this which is mentioned in my text.

He seems to be saying that 3 English men are equal to 1600 French men.
 

MikeNewYork

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As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English man years = 1600 French man years

or

As three to sixteen hundred = 3 English men = 1600 french men


Which one is correct?


I just cant understand this.

I used man-years because those are the numbers that were used. There weren't 3 Englishmen involved or 1600 Frenchmen. There was 1 Englishman (for 3 years) and 40 Frenchmen (for 40 years) involved.
 
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