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  1. Banned
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    #1

    More bored vs. boreder

    Hello teachers,
    I have a grammar book and this is written in it:

    Gas is usually more cheap than electricity. (incorrect)
    Gas is usually cheaper than electricity. (correct)
    Most one-syllable adjectives, form their comparatives and superlatives with er/est: “My brother is younger than I am.”
    Participles used as adjectives are exceptions: “I’ve never felt more bored in all my life.” Or “The two front tyres took more worn.”

    Here is the picture of the page. If you click here you can see it.

    This is my question:
    The book has said (bored) is participle used as an adjective but I checked the dictionary and saw that it is both separately adjective and participle used as adjective. Then we can say (boreder) too.

    I mean it's not only past participle but also a separate adjective. Then if it’s a separate adjective, why don’t we say “boreder”?

    Source: ABC of Common Grammatical Errors by Nigel D Turton.

    Thanks in advance.

  2. 5jj's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: More bored vs. boreder

    Once again you are looking for absolutes when few exist. Whether we call 'bored' in "I am bored" an adjective or a past participle (or a past participle used adjectivally) depends on our approach to it. Whatever you call them, most such words, even monosyllabic ones, are not used in comparative/superlative forms ending in -er/est.

  3. Banned
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    #3

    Re: More bored vs. boreder

    Oh ok. Thank you. Can we also use “more bored” in a comparative sentence with “than” or not?
    Look at this self made sentence: “Alex is more bored than John”

  4. 5jj's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: More bored vs. boreder

    Quote Originally Posted by sb70012 View Post
    Oh ok. Thank you. Can we also use “more bored” in a comparative sentence with “than” or not?
    Look at this self made sentence: “Alex is more bored than John”
    Yes

  5. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: More bored vs. boreder

    Quote Originally Posted by sb70012 View Post
    Hello teachers,
    I have a grammar book and this is written in it:

    Gas is usually more cheap than electricity. (incorrect)
    Gas is usually cheaper than electricity. (correct)
    Most one-syllable adjectives, form their comparatives and superlatives with er/est: “My brother is younger than I am.”
    Participles used as adjectives are exceptions: “I’ve never felt more bored in all my life.” Or “The two front tyres took more worn.”

    Here is the picture of the page. If you click here you can see it.

    This is my question:
    The book has said (bored) is participle used as an adjective but I checked the dictionary and saw that it is both separately adjective and participle used as adjective. Then we can say (boreder) too.

    I mean it's not only past participle but also a separate adjective. Then if it’s a separate adjective, why don’t we say “boreder”?

    Source: ABC of Common Grammatical Errors by Nigel D Turton.

    Thanks in advance.
    Many past participles derived from verbs and used commonly as adjectives are listed separately as adjectives in some dictionaries.

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