DEdesigns57
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- Oct 10, 2013
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I was reading a paper and the author said that the following sentence:
Gen 1:27 And God made man in his image, in the image of God he made him: male and female he made them.
is equivalent to our English imperfect.
And based on that grammatical principle claimed that the following translation is correct:
"And saying is God, Make WILL WE [a continuing action] humanity in Our image…"
and
"And CREATING [a continuing action] is God humanity in His image" (Gen. 1:26a & 27a Concordant Literal Old Testament),
My question is how did he go about making that claim?
HOW is Gen 1:27 equivalent to "Our English Imperfect"? (what logic did he use?)
How does the Imperfect fit into all this?
Thanks In Advance.
Gen 1:27 And God made man in his image, in the image of God he made him: male and female he made them.
is equivalent to our English imperfect.
And based on that grammatical principle claimed that the following translation is correct:
"And saying is God, Make WILL WE [a continuing action] humanity in Our image…"
and
"And CREATING [a continuing action] is God humanity in His image" (Gen. 1:26a & 27a Concordant Literal Old Testament),
My question is how did he go about making that claim?
HOW is Gen 1:27 equivalent to "Our English Imperfect"? (what logic did he use?)
How does the Imperfect fit into all this?
Thanks In Advance.