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  1. Unregistered338
    Guest
    #1

    Smile what does it mean "have been laid before it"

    Dear teachers,
    I have difficulties understanding the below statement, could anyone of you give me advice on what does the part "have been laid before it" mean? and What does "it" refer to?
    "In the case of a private company having a share capital, this form should be submitted within 42 days after the relevant accounts have been laid before it in general meeting."
    Thanks alot!

  2. rewboss's Avatar

    • Join Date: Feb 2006
    • Posts: 1,552
    #2

    Re: what does it mean "have been laid before it"

    The pronoun is quite far removed from its antecedent, which is what makes this sentence a little difficult. But the only reasonable candidate for antecedent is "a private company having a share capital".

    "To be laid before" is a rather pretentious way of saying "to be presented to".

    The sentence is saying that if the company is a private company which has a share capital, you must first present the relevant accounts to the company's general meeting, and then, no later than 42 days after that, send the form.


    • Join Date: Mar 2006
    • Posts: 1
    #3

    Re: what does it mean "have been laid before it"

    Much appreciated Rewboss!

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