No more than - comparing two clause

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Man_From_India

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I came up with this sentence today:
Even she, who believed herself to be a revolutionary, could no more have broken her marital bangles than she could have driven a stake through her husband's heart.
I understand the meaning of this sentence. Here in this sentence two things are being compared. Both are negative sentences. The first sentence is no more than the second sentence. And ultimately giving out a meaning that both the sentences are not true.
But I wonder -

  1. The second part, that the first is being compared with - "she could have driven a stake through her husband's heart." - have no negative, yet how it means negative.
  2. How both the first part and second part tells out that both are impossible to her?
 

emsr2d2

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I came up with this sentence today:
I understand the meaning of this sentence. Here in this sentence two things are being compared. Both are negative sentences. The first sentence is no more than the second sentence. And ultimately giving out a meaning that both the sentences are not true.
But I wonder -

  1. The second part, that the first is being compared with - "she could have driven a stake through her husband's heart." - have no negative, yet how it means negative.
  2. How both the first part and second part tells out that both are impossible to her?

You started your post with "I came up with this sentence today". That means that you created the sentence yourself, you wrote it, you invented it. If that is true, how is it possible that you do not understand it?
 

Man_From_India

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Bengali; Bangla
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You started your post with "I came up with this sentence today". That means that you created the sentence yourself, you wrote it, you invented it. If that is true, how is it possible that you do not understand it?
I am really sorry for that typo. I "came across" that sentence.
 

Tdol

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no more...than

This connects the two parts and the negative carries over because a comparison is being made.
 
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