The child was heard singing / to be singing an English song

[joham]

We can use either of the sentences, can't we? Do they need different context to use?

The child was heard singing an English song.
The child was heard to be singing an English song.

 

[probus]

Both are sufficiently common to be considered correct standard English. But the second one somehow troubles me slightly. Is is Irish dialect, or perhaps Indian dialect? Is is used in some special context? Is it perhaps an older usage? I don't know. All I know is that the I would use the first knowing it to be rock solid, and harbouring a vague doubt about the appropriate context in which to use the second.

 

[Peter Chan]

Both are sufficiently common to be considered correct standard English. But the second one somehow troubles me slightly. Is is Irish dialect, or perhaps Indian dialect? Is is used in some special context? Is it perhaps an older usage? I don't know. All I know is that the I would use the first knowing it to be rock solid, and harbouring a vague doubt about the appropriate context in which to use the second.

Is it also correct to write
"I heard the child singing",
"I have heard the child singing"
"I heard people saying..."
" I have heard people saying..."

 

[Barb_D]

Please do not hijack threads by asking about the structure of the question or something unrelated to the original poster's question. Start a new thread, please.