Interested in Language
I'm wondering if the word "preponderance" is a word family of the word "ponder"?
The ______ of evidence suggests that he's guilty. (PONDER)
The answer is preponderance and what I want to know is that if this can be possible.
According to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Word_family
A word family is the base form of a word plus its inflected forms and derived forms made from affixes (Hirsh & Nation 1992, p. 692). The idea is that a base word and its inflected forms support the same core meaning, and can be considered learned words if a learner knows both the base word and the affix.
So according to this, the foregoing is impossible, right?
Both words have their origin in the Latin pondus/ponderis, (weight).
I doubt if many native speakers see any connection between the two words, other than an apparently coincidental sharing of a number of letters. I think that to suggest that preponderance is 'a form of' ponder is unreasonable.
Last edited by Rover_KE; 02-Mar-2014 at 08:07.
I would agree with 5jj that linking "preponderance" with "ponder" is not reasonable.
Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.