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  1. englishhobby's Avatar
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      • Native Language:
      • Russian
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      • Russian Federation
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    #1

    apologize for doing versus having done

    1) I apologized for losing my temper.
    2) I apologized for having lost my temper.

    Do these two sentences mean the same? If yes, can they be used in the same situation? If not, can you give an example of different situations where each of them can be used?
    If I were a native speaker of English, I would never shut up. :-)

  2. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: apologize for doing versus having done

    They mean the same and you will hear both from native speakers. You will also hear "I apologise for losing/having lost my temper" when someone is actually in the act of apologising, rather than reporting the apology at a later time. It means the same as "I would like to apologise to you for ..."
    Last edited by Rover_KE; 21-Mar-2014 at 09:27.
    Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.

  3. englishhobby's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: apologize for doing versus having done

    If they mean the same, why isn't "having done" becoming less common then (as a more complicated structure)?
    If I were a native speaker of English, I would never shut up. :-)

    • Member Info
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    #4

    Re: apologize for doing versus having done

    '...having lost my temper' is already far less common than 'losing my temper'.

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