The second and third have the same meaning for me.
The first one is not very natural. Usually I would say: "The train will arrive in 2 hours."
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"After 2 hours, the train will arrive."
" The train arrives 2 hours later."
"The train arrives in 2 hours."
What are the differences among them?
I don't know if it's BrE, but only the third sounds natural to me.
I get you.
There really isn't anything wrong with using "after" and the future tense. I think the part of the sentence that is unnatural for me is the use of "after" plus a specific time period.
After I finish washing the car, I will cut the grass.
After two hours, I will cut the grass.
There may be other contexts in which this will work, but the original train sentence is not good.
Now I just feel so lost...
"After an hour I gave up speaking to Ms. Kalleigh's neighbors."
The above is a sentence from corpus. And also, I remember hearing "After a while, blablablah......"
What is going on?
And also, how about "2 hours later, the train arrived". Is this natural?
Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.