I read the following sentence in a comment under a news article.
My husband has been dead since my children were little.
I have read such sentences (with 'has been dead since/for') before. So it looks like common practice. How about 'My husband died when my children were little'
Are both sentences correct? Is one better than the other?
To me, the 'has been' usage feels strange. It seems like I would use it for something like 'Gold prices have been down since last year', and it may indicate that perhaps the prices will rise again at some point. But since a dead person remains dead, it seems odd to use 'has been dead'.