[Grammar] Should have+ PP VS had to

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toloue_man

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Aug 29, 2012
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Student or Learner
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Persian
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Iran
Current Location
Iran
Hello!

In this formula: Should/ought to+ have+ PP, the verb has not actually been fulfilled. For e.g. in this sentence, I should/ought to have called my nephew yesterday. It means that I did not call my nephew yesterday, but for me as a native speaker of Persian the following sentence has the
same meaning as the previous one (maybe it is negative language interference):I had to call my nephew yesterday.

To put it in a nutshell, are these two sentences the same or they differ with one another. If they are not the same, so what is the difference between them?

I should/ought to have called my nephew yesterday.
I had to call my nephew yesterday.
 

Rover_KE

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Jun 20, 2010
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Retired English Teacher
Native Language
British English
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England
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England
I should/ought to have called my nephew yesterday (but I didn't).

I had to call my nephew yesterday (and I did).
 
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