They have lost their job(s)

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gionorton

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I am wondering if I should use : 1)People have lost their jobs 2) people have lost their job . what's the difference between them? could anyone explain it to me in a clear way?
 

Matthew Wai

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I would take "their job" to mean "a single job shared by all of them".

Not a teacher.
 

Tdol

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1 person 1 job
2 people 2 jobs
 

Raymott

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1 person 1 job
2 people 2 jobs
Maybe in an ideal world! Besides I think you could say either 'job' or 'jobs', and the context would make it clear.
And if a company is downsizing, "Everyone is afraid they will lose their job" doesn't refer to only one potential job loss.
 

Roman55

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I am not a teacher.

I get your point but I don't think it's a good example.

"Everyone" is singular and the use of "their" is just a way of avoiding the his/hers dilemma without it actually being a plural.

If a company is downsizing I would probably say, "All of the employees are afraid they will lose their jobs."
 

Raymott

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"Everyone" is singular and the use of "their" is just a way of avoiding the his/hers dilemma without it actually being a plural.
Exactly. Or to put it in a non-PC terms. "Everyone is afraid of losing his job", and in the context, this doesn't apply to the potential loss of only one job - hence my point that, as long as it's grammatical, the actual sentence doesn't matter much because the context is of more importance.
 

MikeNewYork

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In the first sentence "one's" refers back to "one". That is correct.

In Raymott's sentence "one's" would be referring back to "everyone". That is not correct.
 

Raymott

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In Raymott's sentence "one's" would be referring back to "everyone". That is not correct.
Where did I write that? I don't think I've used "one's" in the whole thread.
 

tzfujimino

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Where did I write that? I don't think I've used "one's" in the whole thread.

No, you haven't.
Mike was just responding to Matthew's last question.
He (=Mike) didn't mean what you wrote is incorrect.
:-D
 

MikeNewYork

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Tzfujimino is correct.
 
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