may or may not inlude anyone but

[suprunp]

Note that the first- and second-person plural pronouns are not strictly the actual plurals of the first- and second-person singular pronouns, but for the first person an inclusive form and for the second a form which may or may not inlude anyone but the first person.
(Ukrainian: a comprehensive grammar; Stefan M. Pugh and Ian Press)

Would you be so kind as to tell me whether it should be read as follows:
[...] for the second a form which may
1) include anyone except the first person;
2) include only the first person.

Thanks.

 

[Roman55]

I am not a teacher.

That is a very interesting analysis leading to a surprising conclusion.

I had to think about this a bit because you seemed to be right but at the same time it's not possible for the second person plural to only include the first person.

What I think the "may not include" part actually means is, "include specific people (not just anyone)".

In other words it doesn't include the first person and may include everyone else or just some others. Or am I completely missing the point?

 

[suprunp]

Thank you Roman55!

it's not possible for the second person plural to only include the first person

That's exactly what has been concerning me the most.