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    #1

    Uses of "Having been" and "Past Participle" are the same in English grammar?

    Are the following sentences are the same in English Grammar rules or meaning?

    1. Having been humiliated by you, he left the city.
    and
    2. Humiliated by you, he left the city.
    Last edited by shahjehansoomro; 13-May-2014 at 15:18. Reason: Wrote use instead of uses in title.

  1. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: Uses of "Having been" and "Past Participle" are the same in English grammar?

    Both of your sentences are grammatical and have the same meaning.

    I prefer the simpler "He left the city because you humiliated him."

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    #3

    Re: Uses of "Having been" and "Past Participle" are the same in English grammar?

    Thank you

  2. Raymott's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: Uses of "Having been" and "Past Participle" are the same in English grammar?

    Quote Originally Posted by shahjehansoomro View Post
    1. Having been humiliated by you, he left the city.
    and
    2. Humiliated by you, he left the city.
    They don't necessarily mean the same. Your title indicates that you intend to generalise from this example. You can't.
    "Having been humiliated" means that, at some stage in the past, he was humiliated.
    "Humiliated" implies that he still feels humiliated.
    The difference could become much more obvious and relevant in other examples.

  3. MikeNewYork's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: Uses of "Having been" and "Past Participle" are the same in English grammar?

    Context might help, but I don't see much evidence to support the distinction.

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