Results 1 to 2 of 2
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • Russian
      • Home Country:
      • Ukraine
      • Current Location:
      • Ukraine

    • Join Date: Dec 2011
    • Posts: 120
    #1

    have somebody doing / do

    Hello!
    Could you please tell me if it's OK to use the first participle after 'have' and 'get', or only the second one and the infinitive will do (example 1)?
    E.g. 1. I had / got him working till late a week ago (I made it so that he was working...).
    2. I had him work till late a week ago / I got him to work till late a week ago (the same meaning as in example 1, but less emphatic, no emphasis on the process).
    3. I had / got him bored with all the details in the end (sounds better with 'get' to me, but nothing else comes to my mind; the meaning is that we show the result of the subject's action - In the end, he was bored with all the details I'd given.)
    4. I had / got the documents compiled at the Office (somebody else compiled them,The documents were compiled at the Office.)
    Are all these sentences correct? What about their meanings and differences? Are 'have' and 'get' almost interchangeable here? Thanks a million in advance!

    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • England
      • Current Location:
      • England

    • Join Date: Jun 2010
    • Posts: 24,509
    #2

    Re: have somebody doing / do

    1, 2 and 4 are all correct.

    3 is not colloquial. We'd say 'I bored him with all the details'.

Bookmarks

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •