for its ④ passing from one generation to another

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keannu

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Does the underlined have to be "for it to pass from.."? Isn't a gerund same as a to-infinitive in meaning and usage?

16.5 Recent researches seem to ① be holding out the hope that an elixir of life might soon be discovered ― a miracle drug first imagined by the Chinese emperor Qin Shi Huang. He was the emperor ② responsible for starting the building of the Great Wall of China about 2,200 years ago. However, the elixir of life in the form of a gene is, in reality, still a dream; the obstacles to its discovery ③ are very big. A life span gene ― responsible for controlling longevity ― probably doesn't exist, since there is no mechanism for its ④ passing from one generation to another. In fact, rather than passively, by possessing a gene which determines their long life span, it ⑤ appears almost certain that people who reach the age of 100 or more do so actively, by avoiding disease.
 

Raymott

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No, it doesn't need to be changed. You could change it in this case though.
"Isn't a gerund same as a to-infinitive in meaning and usage?" No! I'm surprised you can ask this, keannu. We get questions about "-ing forms" and infinitives all the time. (But I might be unjustifiably assuming that you read some threads other than your own). Sometimes they mean the same, and sometimes they are significantly different in usage and meaning.
In this case, either will do.
 

keannu

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Can you just take one example when exchanging is not possible?

?1. This is a book for you to pass to your sister.
2. This is a book for your passing to your sister.?- doesn't work probably?
 

Raymott

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Yes, that is an awkward sentence.

"I gave him a beating" Yes. "I gave him a to beat" (!) No.
"I'd like telling you a story" No. "I'd like to tell you a story" Yes.
"I'd enjoy telling you a story." Yes. "I'd enjoy to tell you a story." No.
These mean the opposite:
"I'm going to stop working", "I'm going to stop to work." (I'm going to stop doing something else so that I can work."
 

MikeNewYork

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Whoa!

"I gave him a beating" Yes. "I gave him a to beat" (!) No.

In the first sentence, "beating" is not a gerund.

We know it is not a gerund because it can be modified by an adjective (e.g. terrible) and it can't take a direct object.
 
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