If there were no intervening dialogue, "nevertheless" would be odd.
Student or Learner
While I was texting with a friend of mine, she said the following:
"We'll talk about this later tonight!"
Half an hour later, she replied:
"Nevertheless, we'll talk tomorrow."
And so I, being the great friend I am, told her her use of the word 'nevertheless' was incorrect. She stubbornly kept believing her use of the word was correct, so I bet her €1,-.
It would be much appreciated if someone could help clarify this situation :) HELP ME WIN A EURO! WOO-HOO!
EDIT: I should add this:
She wanted to use 'nevertheless' to contradict what she said before (so instead of talking tonight, she wanted to talk tomorrow)
Last edited by Femkeisab; 04-Aug-2014 at 00:18.
The intervening dialogue went like this:
ME: "Alright, tezt (sic) me later tonight."
My friend likes annoying me, so she repeated my typo:
The next thing she said was the sentence starting with 'nevertheless', which I mentioned in my previous post.
If she started off by saying "We'll talk about this later tonight" and you also said "OK, text/tezt me later tonight", then it makes no sense for her to say "We'll talk tomorrow" with or without "Nevertheless". At no point do you appear to have agreed to communicate "tomorrow".
However, if there was already an agreement to speak the next day, then I find her usage perfectly acceptable. She seems to have been saying "Even if we're going to exchange more texts later tonight, we're still going to speak to each other tomorrow". If that's the case, then I have no problem with "Nevertheless".
That intervening dialogue seems very short to have filled half an hour!
Remember - if you don't use correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing, anything you write will be incorrect.
Thanks for the replies!
Well, after I said "OK, tezt me later tonight", she didn't reply for half an hour.